Sense here, and in John 3:7, must be taken in connection with the

Instances are not sufficient to establish an usus loquendi, and the 'from above' only (John 3:31 John 19:11 John 19:23) but these John elsewhere uses it in the local sense That the Greek word (бј„ОЅП‰ОёОµОЅ) is found with both meanings. Them, may be equally claimed for either view. Our own day the opinions of scholars, whether we count them or weigh Translators have followed the ancient expositors in giving theДЄlternative renderings 'born again' and 'born from above' (margin).Д¬hrysostom notes the two currents of interpretation in his day and in Or, from above, the Greek is purposely ambiguous and can mean bothД®xcept a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.-Our Indeed, as the foot notes in the ESV explicitly point out, My personal view is that, probably, both are intended: converts need to be born again (= anew) but NOT as Nicodemus suggested from earthly origins, but 'from above'. The problem in John 3:3 is should бј„ОЅП‰ОёОµОЅ (anЕЌthen) be translated 'from above', or 'again'? In this case, both are theologically correct (see also John 3:31). In the above extract from BDAG I have only included the Bible references and have not included BDAG's numerous extra Biblical sources and examples. At a subsequent point in time involving repetition, again, eg, Gal 4:9, John 3:3.for a relatively long period in the past, for a long time, eg, Acts 26:5.from a point in time marking the beginning of something, from the beginning, eg, Luke 1:3, Acts 26:5.This is a simple preposition for which BDAG provides four basic uses: The matter in dispute here is NOT the Greek text but the translation of a single word, бј„ОЅП‰ОёОµОЅ (anЕЌthen).

Greek interlinear bible john i